[Cisco SOLVED] The Most Effective Cisco 300-135 Dumps TSHOOT Exam Questions CCNP Routing and Switching Youtube Try 160 Q&As Share[1-17]

What is a Cisco 300-135 dumps exam and why would I even need to take it? The Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (300-135 TSHOOT) exam is a 120 minutes (15-25 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Routing and Switching certification. The most effective Cisco 300-135 dumps TSHOOT exam questions CCNP Routing and Switching Youtube try. “Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-135 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-135 exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-135 TSHOOT dumps have a lot of similarities with the real exam practice questions.Take advantage of the Pass4itsure Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html TSHOOT dumps to prepare for the exam, let me feel that the exam have never so easy to pass.

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300-135 dumps

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QUESTION 1
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1 ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1 ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1 ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.

C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 7
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.

300-135 dumps
R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
300-135 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
– (Topic 18)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
 addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question. The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. Ipv4 OSPF Routing
D. Ipv4 EIGRP Routing.
E. Ipv4 Route Redistribution.
F. Ipv6 RIP Routing
G. Ipv6 OSPF Routing
H. Ipv4 and Ipv6 Interoperability
I. Ipv4 layer 3 security.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
– (Topic 18)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question. What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253 command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
– (Topic 16)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1). Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions. On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1

F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following factors is a PRIMARY driver for information security governance that does not require any further justification?
A. Alignment with industry best practices
B. Business continuity investment
C. Business benefits
D. Regulatory compliance
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Regulatory compliance can be a standalone driver for an information security governance measure. No further analysis nor justification is required since the entity has no choice in the regulatory requirements. Buy-in from business managers must be obtained by the information security manager when an information security governance measure is sought based on its alignment with industry best practices. Business continuity investment needs to be justified by business impact analysis. When an information security governance measure is sought based on qualitative business benefits, further analysis is required
to determine whether the benefits outweigh the cost of the information security governance measure in question.
QUESTION 12
A security manager meeting the requirements for the international flow of personal data will need to ensure:
A. a data processing agreement.
B. a data protection registration.
C. the agreement of the data subjects.
D. subject access procedures.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Whenever personal data are transferred across national boundaries, the awareness and agreement of the data subjects are required. Choices A, B and D are supplementary data protection requirements that are not key for international data transfer.
QUESTION 13
An information security manager mapping a job description to types of data access is MOST likely to adhere to which of the following information security principles?
A. Ethics
B. Proportionality
C. Integration
D. Accountability
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Information security controls should be proportionate to the risks of modification, denial of use or disclosure of the information. It is advisable to learn if the job description is apportioning more data than are necessary for that position to execute the business rules (types of data access). Principles of ethics and integration have the least to do with mapping job description to types of data access. The principle of accountability would be the second most adhered to principle since people with access to data may not always be accountable but may be required to perform an operation.
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the MOST important prerequisite for establishing information security management within an organization?
A. Senior management commitment
B. Information security framework
C. Information security organizational structure
D. Information security policy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Senior management commitment is necessary in order for each of the other elements to succeed. Without senior management commitment, the other elements will likely be ignored within the organization.
QUESTION 15
What will have the HIGHEST impact on standard information security governance models?
A. Number of employees
B. Distance between physical locations
C. Complexity of organizational structure
D. Organizational budget
300-135 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security governance models are highly dependent on the overall organizational structure. Some of the elements that impact organizational structure are multiple missions and functions across the organization, leadership and lines of communication. Number of employees and distance between physical locations have less impact on information security governance models since well-defined process, technology and people components intermingle to provide the proper governance. Organizational budget is not a major impact once good governance models are in place, hence governance will help in effective management of the organization’s budget.
QUESTION 16
In order to highlight to management the importance of integrating information security in the business processes, a newly hired information security officer should FIRST:
A. prepare a security budget.
B. conduct a risk assessment.
C. develop an information security policy.
D. obtain benchmarking information.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk assessment, evaluation and impact analysis will be the starting point for driving management’s attention to information security. All other choices will follow the risk assessment.
QUESTION 17
Temporarily deactivating some monitoring processes, even if supported by an acceptance of operational risk, may not be acceptable to the information security manager if:
A. it implies compliance risks.
B. short-term impact cannot be determined.
C. it violates industry security practices.
D. changes in the roles matrix cannot be detected.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Monitoring processes are also required to guarantee fulfillment of laws and regulations of the organization and, therefore, the information security manager will be obligated to comply with the law. Choices B and C are evaluated as part of the operational risk. Choice D is unlikely to be as critical a breach of regulatory legislation. The acceptance of operational risks overrides choices B, C and D.

300-135 dumps

Cisco 300-135 dumps TSHOOT exam is developed by Pass4itsure research of previous real exams. “Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks”, also known as 300-135 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-135 dumps exam questions answers are updated (160 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 300-135 dumps is CCNP Routing and Switching. This is someone who passed the https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html dumps examination said to us.

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