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Which two statements about remote survivability are true? (Choose two.)
A. SRST supports more Cisco IP Phones than Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode supports more Cisco IP Phones than SRST.
C. MGCP fallback is required for ISDN call preservation.
D. MGCP fallback functions with SRST.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: AD
Which component is needed to set up SAF CCD?
A. SAF-enabled H.323 intercluster (gatekeeper controlled) trunk
B. SAF forwarders on Cisco routers
C. Cisco Unified Communications cluster
D. SAF-enabled H.225 trunk
Correct Answer: B
After forgetting to log out of his IP phone in the main office, an Extension Mobility user is unable to log in to a different IP phone at a remote office. Which option is a possible reason for the problem?
A. The phone at the remote location is a different model than the phone in the user\’s main office.
B. The user\’s Extension Mobility profile is misconfigured.
C. The user can log in to only one device at a time.
D. The device pool is misconfigured.
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: C
Which option is a benefit of implementing CFUR?
A. CFUR is designed to initiate TEHO to reduce toll charges.
B. CFUR can prevent phones from unregistering.
C. CFUR can reroute calls placed to a temporarily unregistered destination phone.
D. CFUR eliminates the need for COR on an ISR.
Correct Answer: C
Company X has a primary and a backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager instance. The administrator had to do maintenance on the primary node and did a shutdown, which resulted in a failover to the backup node. What happens when the primary node comes back online?
A. The primary node becomes the backup node.
B. Endpoints detect that the primary is back and reregisters automatically.
C. The backup node must be shut down first to allow the endpoints to realize that the primary node is online again.
D. Nothing, the endpoints only failover when the node they lose connection to their registered node.
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: B
In a distributed call processing network with locations-based CAC, calls are routed to and from intercluster trunks. Which trunk type is implemented in this network?
A. intercluster trunk with gatekeeper control
B. intercluster trunk without gatekeeper control
C. SIP trunk
D. h225 trunk
Correct Answer: B
Which three devices support the SAF Call Control Discovery protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Border Element
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco IOS Gatekeeper
D. Cisco Catalyst Switch
E. Cisco IOS Gateway
F. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
300-075 vce Correct Answer: AEF
In the case of a VCS cluster, which configuration element is recommended for endpoint H.323 registration?
A. DNS SRV records pointing to the VCS cluster name
B. static IP addresses
C. hostname of the VCS cluster configuration master
D. hostname of the VCS cluster member peer
Correct Answer: A
Which code snippet is required for SAF to be initialized?
A. Service Family
C. router eigrp
D. topology base
300-075 exam Correct Answer: C
Company X wants to implement RSVP-based Call Admission Control and move away from the current location-based configuration. Where does the administrator go to create a default profile?
A. System andgt; Call Manager andgt; Clusterwide andgt; Service Parameters andgt; RSVP
B. System andgt; Service Parameters andgt; RSVP
C. System andgt; Service Parameters andgt; Call Manager andgt; Clusterwide parameters andgt; RSVP
D. on each MGCP gateway at all remote locations
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31.With what setting is an administrator able to control when to download a Resource to a Dispatcher?
A. Dispatcher discovery
B. Dispatcher cache timing
C. Dispatcher cache duration
D. Dispatcher cache availability
300-075 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 32.How can an administrator create a user with the following options.?
First Name: Amanda
Last Name: Cavendish
Primary mail-address: [email protected]
Display Name: Amanda Cavendish
The following Parameters are available:
A. The administrator needs more Parameters to achieve this in RES Automation Manager.
B. Enter all applicable fields in a .CSV file, create the Parameters Firstname and Lastname and enter them when scheduling the job.
C. Create a task, create active directory user with the following options: FirstNarne = $[FirstbTame]
LastName = $[LastName] DisplayName = $[FirstName] $[LastName] LogonName =
D. Create a task, create active directory user with the following options: FirstNarne = $[FirstbTame]
LastName = $[LastName] DisplayName = $[FirstName] $[LastName]LogonName =
QUESTION 33.How many licenses are required when running Connectors on one mail server, one directory server and one database server?
A. 46 licenses
B. 49 licenses
C. 53 licenses
D. 56 licenses
300-075 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 34.If not enough licenses are available, how does the RES Automation Manager decide which Agents get the licenses that are available?
A. The Agent deployed the first will get the first license and so on.
B. Every Agent which comes online receives a license automatically, leaving another Agent unlicensed and so on.
C. The Agents closest to the Datastorereceivesa license first.
D. Licenses are divided randomly on the Agents.
QUESTION 35.An administrator is planning an RES Automation Manager environment. Since bandwidth in the environment is limited, the RES Automation Manager wants to limit download speed between the Agents and Dispatchers. How can this be achieved?
A. Deploy additional Dispatchers to distribute the load.
B. Set up Resource download throttling.
C. Set up Master Caching.
D. Set up bandwidth throttling.
300-075 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 36.Run Book Automation
A. can reduce unplanned downtime.
B. increases end-user productivity.
C. provides a consistent user workspace.
D. is indifferent of the end user’s operating system
QUESTION 37.When an Agent is reverted to a snapshot. Snapshot Intelligence will:
detect and record this event in the Audit trail of the Agent re-apply job history automatically depending on the Agent setting remove the old snapshot from the snapshot repository match the Agents job history to the actual change history on the Agent
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1,3 and 4 only
300-075 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 38.An administrator disables a Module that is also used in a Project. The disabled Module is
A. disabled in the Project
B. deleted from the Project.
C. enabled in the Project.
D. invisible in the Project.
QUESTION 39.An administrator has a Connector for a mail server and needs a new Connector on a directory server. However, not enough licenses are available to accomplish this. Therefore the administrator decides to use the licenses from the mail server Connector. “Which steps are necessary?
A. Edit the properties of the Connector and change the type to directory server.
B. Delete all objects which are using the mail server Connector, delete this Connector and create a new Connector for directory server.
C. Create a second Connector for directory server and disable the Connector for the mail server.
D. Delete the Connector for the mail server and create a new Connector for the directory server.
300-075 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 40.Given the following Parameters and values, what will the value of PARM3 be?
[email protected]($[PARM1 ], 1,2)
A. @PEPLACE($[PARM2], 1,2)
QUESTION 41.Which component of AppTransaction Xpert would be used for capacity prediction of multiple users, transactions, and locations?
A.Multi-User Quick Predict
B.Data Exchange chart
300-075 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION 42.AppNetwork Path Analysis, a troubleshooting workflow in AppResponse Xpert, is enabled by which solution?
C.AppTransaction Xpert Packet Trace Warehouse
E.AppResponse Xpert BrowserMetrix
QUESTION 43.Which solution is used to discover applications on a network and monitor their response times?
300-075 vce Answer:B
QUESTION 44.Which solutions can be data sources for the dashboards? (Select 3)
QUESTION 45.Which solution provides deep transaction analysis by combining both packet-trace and server-trace data?
300-075 exam Answer:D
QUESTION 46.The AppResponse Xpert module that supports following a user through a XenApp Server to the back-end tiers is called:
D.Citrix Analysis Module
QUESTION 47.AppInternals Xpert comes with which components? (Select 3)
B.Server Management Platform
D.Transaction Trace Warehouse
300-075 dumps Answer:BDE
QUESTION 48.Which solution provides VoIP configuration management, testing, and remote control?
B.Unified Communications Xpert
QUESTION 49.Which solution supports prediction of the impact of WAN acceleration on application transactions?
C.Unified Communications Xpert
300-075 pdf Answer:E
QUESTION 50.AppMapper Xpert can leverage packet data collected by AppTransaction Xpert Agents using which
C.AppTransaction Xpert Packet Trace Warehouse
QUESTION 51.A DA is installed on an AppInternals Xpert monitored tier to collect metric data. What does the abbreviation “DA” stand for?
300-075 vce Answer:A
QUESTION 52.Which solution facilitates finding a single server transaction among billions of transactions and supports analysis down to the method level?
D.AppInternals Xpert Transaction Trace Warehouse
QUESTION 53.Which solution collects IP SLA testing data?
300-075 exam Answer:B
QUESTION 54.Which solution supports packet capture directly from WAN acceleration devices?
QUESTION 55.Which solution is recommended for deep packet analysis of trace file data downloaded from AppResponse Xpert?
C.AppTransaction Xpert Packet Trace Warehouse
300-075 dumps Answer:D
QUESTION 56.AppSensor Xpert provides information to which solutions? (Select 2)
C.Riverbed Performance Management Dashboards
D.AppTransaction Xpert Packet Trace Warehouse
QUESTION 57.Which solution does AppResponse Xpert use to provide SNMP data as a supplement to packet data?
300-075 pdf Answer:C
QUESTION 58.What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as “unknown” and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator’s attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
QUESTION 59.When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service B.Stop
and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service C.Verify that
the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
300-075 vce Answer:C
QUESTION 60.How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Eight (8) B.Ten
(16) D.Thirty two
QUESTION 61. After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
300-075 exam Answer:A
QUESTION 62.When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check the three correct answers.)
Answer:A B D
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